1. Which of the following
is a limitation of early networks that used a daisy-chain method of connecting
computers? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Total number of computers that could be connected
b. The processing speed of
the computers connected
c. Cable length
d. No Internet access
2. Which of the following
is true of a repeater?
a. Receives frames and
forwards them
b. Determines which network
to send a packet
c. Receives bit signals and strengthens them
d. Has a burned-in MAC
address for each port
2
3. Which of the following
is true of a hub? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Usually has just two ports
b. Transmits regenerated signals to all connected ports
c. Usually has four or more
ports
d. Works with MAC addresses
4. Which of the following
is the unit of measurement by which a hub’s bandwidth is usually specified?
a. Bytes per second
b. Bits per second
c. Packets per second
d. Bytes per minute
5. Which of the following
describes how devices connected to a hub use the speed at which the hub can
transmit data?
a. Bandwidth optimization
b. Bandwidth dedication
c. Bandwidth sharing
d. Bandwidth multiplier
6. Which of the following
is a likely indicator light on a hub? (Choose all that apply.)
a. CRC error
b. Link status
c. Connection speed
d. Activity
e. Signal strength
7. Which of the following
describes how devices connected to a switch use the speed at which the switch
can transmit data?
a. Dedicated bandwidth
b. Half-duplex bandwidth
c. Half-scale bandwidth
d. Shared bandwidth
8. What does a switch use
to create its switching table?
a. Source IP addresses
b. Destination logical
addresses
c. Destination physical
addresses
d. Source MAC addresses
9. What purpose does the
timestamp serve in a switching table?
a. Tells the switch when to
forward a frame
b. Tells the switch how
long to wait for a response
c. Tells the switch when to delete an entry
d. Tells the switch how
long it has been running
10. What feature of a
switch allows devices to effectively communicate at 200 Mbps on a 100 Mbps
switch?
a. Uplink port
b. Full-duplex mode
c. Shared bandwidth
d. Bit strengthening
e. Frame doubling
f. Signal regeneration
11. To which device is a
wireless access point most similar in how it operates?
a. Hub
b. Switch
c. NIC
d. Router
12. What’ s the purpose of
an RTS signal in wireless networking?
a. It allows the AP to
request which device is the transmitting station.
b. It allows the AP to tell
all stations that it’ s ready to transmit data.
c. It allows a client to notify the AP that it’ s ready
to send data.
d. It allows a client to
request data from the AP.
13. Which of the following
is a common operational speed of a wireless network?
a. 10 Kbps
b. 110 Gbps
c. 600 Kbps
d. 11 Mbps
14. Which of the following
is a task performed by a NIC and its driver? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Provides a connection to the network medium
b. Converts bit signals
into frames for transmission on the medium
c. Receives packets from the network protocol and creates
frames
d. Adds a header before
sending a frame to the network protocol
e. Adds error-checking data to the frame
2
15. Which of the following best describes a
MAC address?
a. A 24-bit number
expressed as 12 decimal digits
b. Two 24-bit numbers, in which one is the OUI
c. A 48-bit number composed
of 12 octal digits
d. A dotted decimal number
burned into the NIC
16. Under which
circumstances does a NIC allow inbound communications to pass through
a. The source MAC address is the broadcast
address.
b. The destination MAC address matches the built-in MAC
address.
c. The destination MAC address is all binary 1s.
d. The NIC is operating in
exclusive mode.
17. How does a protocol
analyzer capture all frames?
a. It configures the NIC to
capture only unicast frames.
b. It sets all incoming
destination addresses to be broadcasts.
c. It configures the NIC to operate in promiscuous mode.
d. It sets the exclusive
mode option on the NIC.
e. It captures only
multicast frames.
18. In Windows 7, which of
the following displays information about currently installed NICs?
a. Network Connections
b. NICs and Drivers
c. Local Area Networks
d. Computers and Devices
19. Which of the following
is the purpose of an SSID?
a. Assigns an address to a
wireless NIC
b. Acts as a unique name
for a local area connection
c. Acts as a security key
for securing a network
d. Identifies a wireless network
20. Which of the following
describe the function of routers? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Forward frames from one
network to another
b. Connect LANS
c. Attach computers to the
internetwork
d. Work with packets and IP addresses
21. What information is
found in a routing table?
a. Computer names and IP
addresses
b. Network addresses and interfaces
c. MAC addresses and ports
d. IP addresses and MAC addresses
22. You currently have 15 switches with
an average of 20 stations connected to each switch. The switches are connected
to one another so that all 300 computers can communicate with each other in a
single LAN. You have been detecting a high percentage of broadcast frames on
this LAN. You think the number of broadcasts might be having an impact on
network performance. What should you do?
a. Connect the switches in groups of
five, and connect each group of switches to a central hub.
b. Upgrade the switches to a faster
speed.
c.
Reorganize the network into smaller groups and connect each group to a router.
d. Disable broadcast forwarding on the
switches.
23. Review the routing table in Figure 2-29.
Based on this figure, where will the router send a packet with the source
network number 1.0 and the destination network number 3.0?
a. EthA
b. WAN A
c.
WAN B
d. None of the above
24. If a router receives a packet with a destination network address unknown to the router, what will the router do?
a. Send the packet out all interfaces.
b.
Discard the packet.
c. Add the destination network to its
routing table.
d. Query the network for the
destination network.
25. Which of the following is true
about routers? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Forward broadcasts
b.
Use default routes for unknown network addresses
c. Forward unicasts
d. Used primarily to connect
workstations
Chapter3 Review Questions
1. Which of the following describes the arrangement of network cabling between devices?
a. Logical topology
b. Networking technology
c. Physical topology
d. Media access method
2. Which of the following is an advantage of a star topology? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Allows faster technologies than a bus does
b. Requires less cabling than a bus
c. Centralized monitoring of network
3. Which of the following is an example of a technology using a physical ring topology?
a. Token ring
b. FDDI
c. ADSL
d. IEEE 802.5
4. Which technology is likely to be implemented as a point-to-point physical topology?
a. Wi-Fi infrastructure mode
b. FDDI
c. Ethernet
d. Wireless bridge
5. Which of the following describes a hub-based Ethernet network?
a. Physical bus
b. Logical bus
c. Physical switching
d. Logical star
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of a logical ring topology? (Choose all that apply.)
a. It’ s used by Ethernet.
b. One technology uses an MAU.
c. It’ s used by FDDI.
d. Some technologies use a token.
e. It’ s the most popular logical topology.
7. Which best describes a typical wireless LAN?
a. Logical ring topology
b. Logical switching topology
c. Logical bus topology
d. Logical star topology
8. Which of the following is a characteristic of a switched logical topology? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Uses a physical bus topology
b. Creates dynamic connections
c. Sometimes called a shared-media topology
d. Uses a physical star topology
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of unshielded twisted-pair cabling? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Consists of four wires
b. Commonly used in physical bus topologies
c. Has a distance limitation of 100 meters
d. Susceptible to electrical interference
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Can be used in electrically noisy environments
b. Requires only a single strand of fiber for network connections
c. Carries data over longer distances than UTP does
d. Lower bandwidth capability
11. Which topology most likely uses coaxial cabling?
a. Physical star
b. Logical ring
c. Physical bus
d. Logical switching
12. Which of the following is true of a MAC address?
a. All binary 1s in the source address indicates a broadcast frame.
b. It’ s sometimes called a logical address.
c. A destination address of 12 hexadecimal Fs is a broadcast.
d. It’ s composed of 12 bits.
13. Which of the following is the most commonly used Ethernet frame type?
a. Ethernet II
b. Ethernet SNAP
c. Ethernet 802.3
d. Ethernet 802.2
14. Which of the following is a field of the most common Ethernet frame type? (Choose all that apply.)
a. ARP trailer
b. FCS
c. Destination MAC Address
d. Data
e. MAC type
15. Which access method uses a “ listen before sending” strategy?
a. Token passing
b. CSMA/CD
c. Token bus
d. Polling
16. Which of the following is true about full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Stations can transmit and receive but not at the same time.
b. Collision detection is turned off.
c. It’s possible only with switches.
d. It allows a physical bus to operate much faster.
17. Which of the following is defined by the extent to which signals in an Ethernet bus topology network are propagated?
a. Physical domain
b. Collision domain
c. Broadcast domain
d. Logical domain
18. Which of the following is considered a property of Ethernet? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Scalable
b. Best-effort delivery system
c. Guaranteed delivery system
d. Obsolete technology
19. Which of the following is true of IEEE 802.3an?
a. Requires two pairs of wires
b. Uses Category 5 or higher cabling
c. Currently best for desktop computers
d. Operates only in full-duplex mode
20. Which of the following is a feature of 100BaseFX? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Often used as backbone cabling
b. Best when only short cable runs are needed
c. The fastest of the Ethernet standards
d. Uses two strands of fiber
21. Which Wi-Fi standard can provide the highest bandwidth?
a. 802.11a
b. 802.11b
c. 802.11n
d. 802.11g
22. Which of the following is true about infrastructure mode in wireless networks? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Best used for temporary networks
b. Uses a central device
c. Resembles a physical bus and logical ring
d. Most like a logical bus and physical star
23. How many channels can be used on an 802.11b network in North America?
a. 7
b. 9
c. 11
d. 13
24. Which media access method does Wi-Fi use?
a. CSMA/CD
b. Token bus
c. Demand priority
d. CSMA/CA
25. Which of the following is true about the token ring technology? (Choose all that apply.)
a. It uses a physical ring topology.
b. All computers have equal access to the media.
c. It uses RTS/CTS signaling before transmission can occur.
d. Only the computer with the token can transmit data.
d. Only the computer with the token can transmit data.
Chapter6: Network Reference Models and Standards Review Questions
1. The original commercial
version of Ethernet supported 10 Mbps bandwidth; the version introduced in the
early 1990s supports 100 Mbps; and in 1998, Gigabit Ethernet was introduced.
All versions use the same data frame formats, with the same maximum PDU sizes,
so they can interoperate freely. Given this information and what you know of layered
technologies, which of the following statements is true? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. Ethernet works at the
Data Link and Physical layers of the OSI model, and upgrades to newer, faster
versions of Ethernet can be made by changing only the components that work at
these layers.
b. Ethernet spans several
layers and requires a new protocol stack to upgrade to new versions.
c. Changes in technology at one layer of the OSI model
don’t usually affect the operation of other
layers.
d. Ethernet isn’t
considered a scalable technology.
2. The addition of
information to a PDU as it’s passed from one layer to the next is called which
of the following?
a. PDI transforming
b. Encapsulation
c. Deencapsulation
d. Converting
6
3. Layers acting as though
they communicate directly with each other across the network are called which
of the following?
a. Partners
b. Synchronous
c. Interchangeable
d. Peers
4. Place the following
letters in the correct order to represent the OSI model from Layer 7 to Layer
1:
a. Presentation
b. Data Link
c. Session
d. Physical
e. Application
f. Transport
g. Network
Application
- Presentation - Session - Transport - Network - Data Link - Physical
5. Which OSI layer creates
and processes frames?
Data Link
6. Which OSI layer handles
flow control, data segmentation, and reliability?
a. Application
b. Physical
c. Transport
d. Data Link
7. Which OSI layer governs
how a NIC is attached to the network medium?
Physical
8. Which OSI layer
determines the route a packet takes from sender to receiver?
a. 7
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
9. Which OSI layer is
responsible for setting up, maintaining, and ending ongoing information exchanges
across a network?
a. 6
b. 3
c. 2
d. 5
10. Which of the following
elements might the Data Link layer add to its PDU? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Physical addresses
b. Logical addresses
c. Data
d. CRC
11. When and how many times
is a CRC calculated?
a. Once, before transmission
b. Once, after receipt
c. Twice, once before
transmission and again on receipt
d. At the source and destination and at each intermediary
device
12. Which layer of the OSI
model does Project 802 divide into two sublayers?
a. Physical
b. Data Link
c. Network
d. Session
13. What are the names of
the sublayers specified as part of Project 802? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Data Link Control (DLC)
b. Logical Link Control (LLC)
c. Carrier Sense Multiple
Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)
d. Media Access Control (MAC)
14. Which term refers to
stripping header information as a PDU is passed from one layer to a higher
layer?
a. Deencapsulation
b. Encapsulation
c. PDU stripping
d. Packetization
15. Which IEEE 802 standard
applies to Ethernet?
a. 802.2
b. 802.3
c. 802.4
d. 802.5
e. 802.11
6
16. Which IEEE 802 standard applies to
wireless LANs?
a. 802.2
b. 802.3
c. 802.4
d. 802.5
e. 802.11
17. What is the name of the
PDU at the Transport layer?
a. Bit
b. Packet
c. Segment
d. Data
18. At which OSI layer does
the PDU contain sequence and acknowledgement numbers?
a. Application
b. 4 transport
c. Data Link
d. 6
19. Which of the following
is an example of software found at the Application layer? (Choose all that
apply.)
a. FTP
b. TCP
c. HTTP
d. ICMP
20. At which Data Link
sublayer does the physical address reside?
a. Media Access Control (MAC)
b. Logical Link Control
(LLC)
c. Data Access Control
(DAC)
d. Network Access Control
(NAC)
21. Which of the following
problems can occur at the Physical layer?
a. NIC driver problems
b. Incorrect IP addresses
c. Signal errors caused by noise
d. Incorrect segment size
Chapter 7: Network Hardware in Depth Review Questions
1. When a switch receives a frame on a port and floods the frame,
what does it do with the frame?
a. Discards it
b. Changes the destination address to FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF
c. Forwards it out all
other connected ports
d. Clears the switching table and adds the frame source address to
the table
2. You have two eight-port switches. On each switch, seven
stations are connected to ports, and the two switches are connected with the
eighth port. How many collisions domains are there?
a. 16
b. 15
c. 14
d. 8
e. 1
3. Which of the following is considered a Layer 2 device?
a. Computer
b. Switch
c. Router
d. Hub
4. You just purchased some new switches for your company’s
network. Your junior technicians are doing most of the work connecting switches
to workstations and to each other, and you don’t want to confuse them by
requiring them to use both patch cables and crossover cables. How can you test
the switches to determine whether you need both types of cable, and what’s the
feature for using only one type of cable for all connections?
a. Connect the switch to a PC NIC and configure different speeds
on the NIC by using the NIC driver. You’re okay if the switch links at all
speeds. It’s called auto-MDIX.
b. Connect two switches by using a crossover cable. If the
connection works, the switch supports auto-negotiate.
c. Connect the switch to a PC NIC and configure different speeds
on the NIC by using the NIC driver. You’re okay if the switch links at all
speeds. It’s called auto-negotiate.
d. Connect two switches by
using a patch cable. If the connection works, the switch supports auto-MDIX.
5. What feature of a switch keeps switching table entries from
becoming stale?
Aging Time
6. Which is the fastest switching method?
a. Store-and-forward
b. Fragment-free
c. Cut-through
d. Forward-free
7. There can be only one MAC address per port in a switching
table.
True or
False?
8. What does it mean if the first 24 bits of a MAC address are
01:00:5E?
a. The NIC was manufactured by Intel.
b. It’s a multicast frame.
c. It’s an invalid CRC.
d. The frame will be flooded.
9. What feature should you look for in switches if your network is
cabled like the one in
a. VLANs
b. Auto-negotiate
c. STP
d. Auto-MDIX
10. What should you configure on a switch that’ s connected to
three broadcast domains?
a. IGMP
b. VLANs
c. Port security
d. STP
11. Which of the following is a Layer 3 device?
a. Router
b. NIC
c. Switch
d. Computer
12. What does a router do after receiving a frame on one of its
interfaces? (Choose all that apply.)
a. Deencapsulates the frame to create a packet
b. Deencapsulates the packet to create a segment
c. Encapsulates the frame to create a new packet
d. Encapsulates the packet to create a new frame
13. Which of the following is found in a routing table? (Choose
all that apply.)
a. Destination MAC address
b. Port number
c. Metric
d. Next hop
e. Domain name
14. Which of the following accurately describes a distance-vector
routing protocol?
a. OSPF is an example.
b. It learns from its
neighbors.
c. It sends the status of its interface links to other routers.
d. It converges the fastest.
15. Which of the following is a characteristic of routing
protocols? (Choose all that apply.)
a. They populate routing tables statically.
b. Network changes are
reflected in the routing table automatically.
c. They’ re not a good solution with redundant routes.
d. They add routing table entries dynamically.
7
16. Which of the following
is the best routing solution for a network that includes redundant links?
a. RIP
b. STP
c. OSPF
d. Static
17. If you don’ t want wireless clients to view the name of your
wireless network, what feature should you use?
a. WEP
b. Disabling SSID
broadcasts
c. MAC filtering
d. AP isolation
18. To prevent a wardriver from being able to interpret captured
wireless network data, you should enable which of the following?
a. MAC filtering
b. AP isolation
c.WPA or WPA2
d. Repeater mode
19. What feature can you use to wirelessly connect the wired
networks in two buildings?
a. Repeater mode
b. AP isolation
c. Bridge mode
d. VLAN mode
20. Which AP feature is useful when you have many guests accessing
your network and you don’ t want them to be able to access the computers of
other guests?
a. MAC filtering
b. AP isolation
c. Bridge mode
d. VLAN mode
21. Which PC bus uses up to 32 lanes to achieve very high data
transfer rates?
a. PCI
b. PCI-X
c. USB
d. PCIe
22.
Which PC bus allows you to connect a NIC to your computer easily without powering
off?
a.
PCI
b.
PCI-X
c. USB
d.
PCIe
23.
Which NIC feature do you need to configure on a thin client?
a.
QoS
b. PXE
c.
IPSec
d.
ACPI
24.
Which device is used to communicate between broadcast domains?
a.
Repeater
b. Switch with VLANs
c. Router
d.
Switch with STP
25.
What feature should you configure to prevent users on one subnet from accessing
the
Web
server on another subnet?
a.
MAC filtering
b. Access control lists
c.
Dynamic routing
d.
Spanning Tree Protocol
thank you very much
ReplyDelete