American Government: Baseline Test
Question 1 A governmental structure that gives each of the three branches of power some
degree of oversight and control of each other is called:
1) Checks and balances
2) Federalism
3) Command and Control
4) Incrementalism
Question 2 Who is the commander in chief of the armed forces?
1) The secretary of state
2) The secretary of defense
3) Congress
4) The President
Question 3 Where can the Bill of Rights be found?
1) The Declaration of Independence
2) The Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen
3) The first 10 amendments to the Constitution
4) Article 7 of the Constitution
Question 4 The official name of Georgia’s legislative body is:
1) Citizens’ Assembly
2) National Assembly
3) Georgia General Assembly
4) None of the above
Question 5 Who has the power to declare war?
1) Congress.
2) President.
3) Both A and B.
4) Neither A nor B.
Question 6 What branch did the Founding Fathers create to be the most powerful?
1) Congress.
2) President.
3) Supreme Court.
4) Federal Bureaucracy.
Question 7 Who is considered the Father of the Constitution?
1) Benjamin Franklin.
2) Thomas Jefferson.
3) James Madison.
4) George Washington.
Question 8 The right to bear arms is in the ______ Amendment.
1) 1st.
2) 2nd.
3) 3rd.
4) 4th.
Question 9 The Supreme Court decision that ordered the desegregation of public schools was
1) Plessey v Ferguson.
2) Roe v. Wade.
3) Brown v. Board.
4) Bowers v. Hardwick.
Question 10 If there is a conflict between the federal government and state government, then the federal government wins.
1) True
2) False
The political landscape Chapter 1 Quiz
Question 1 A social contract theory of government was proposed by
1) Plato and Aristotle.
2) Aquinas and Luther.
3) Newton and the separatists.
4) Locke and Hobbes.
Question 2 Indirect democracy is based on
1) Consensus.
2) Unanimity.
3) The system of government used in ancient Greece.
4) Representation.
5) "Mob rule."
Question 3 A doctrine that society should be governed by certain ethical principles that are part of nature and can be understood by reason is called
1) Ethical law.
2) Contract law.
3) Natural law.
4) Newton's law.
5) Constitutional law.
Question 4 According to the Preamble of the U.S. Constitution, which of the following is NOT an example of a function of American government?
1) Promoting the general welfare
2) Securing the blessings of liberty
3) Ensuring the pursuit of happiness
4) Establishing justice
5) Insuring domestic tranquility
Question 5 All of the following are among the functions that political scientists attribute to ideologies EXCEPT
1) Explanation
2) Evaluation
3) Orientation
4) Discrimination
5) Political programs
Question 6 Enlightenment thinkers argued that the world could be improved through
1) Religious intolerance and human reason.
2) Human reason, science, and religious toleration.
3) Faith, religion, and divine reason.
4) Human reason, science, and religious homogeny.
5) Pseudo-science and religious toleration.
Question 7 Politics, as defined in the text, is
1) Way too corrupt to attract any good men or women to run for office.
2) Impossible without government.
3) The study of "who gets what, when, and how."
4) The province of only the wealthy.
5) Irrelevant to the modern world.
Question 8 John Locke wrote Leviathan, in which he advocated for a strong central government.
1) True
2) False
Question 9 The key functions of American government are found in both the Declaration of Independence and the Preamble of the U.S. Constitution.
1) True
2) False
Question 10 According to a 2010 poll, over half of Americans believed that country is headed in the wrong direction.
1) True
2) False
Chapter 2 The constitution
Question 1 The Virginia plan called for:
1) Strong state governments
2) Single legislature
4) Bicameral legislature
Question 2 Who initially insisted that a Bill of Rights be amended to the Constitution?
Whigs
1) Democrats
2) Federalists
3) Anti-Federalists
4) James Madison
Question 3 In 1765, the American colonists initiated a major protest against:
1) The French
2) Stamp Act
3) Tea Act
4) State governments
Question 4 One of the major weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation was:
1) It had a strong president
2) It had a functioning judiciary
3) Created a tyranny
4) Had no effective central government
Question 5 The most serious disagreement among large and small states during the Constitutional Convention was over:
1) Representation in Congress
2) Westward expansion
3) Creating a tyrannical government
4) Taxation
Question 6 According to Thomas Hobbes, the state of nature is peaceful coexistence.
1) True
2) False
Question 7 The preamble embraces the principle of popular sovereignty.
1) True
2) False
Question 8 As discussed in class, the Constitutional provision "He shall have power to make treaties and he shall nominate judges of the Supreme Court" embraces the following principle(s):
1) Popular sovereignty
2) Separation of powers
3) Checks and balances
4) B and C
Question 9 The three fifths compromise was drafted in order to deal with the following issue:
1) Presidential impeachment
2) How to count slaves when counting the state's population
3) How to select the members of the Supreme Court
4) The number of the Southern states needed to ratify a treaty
Question 10 The document regulating the government established shortly after the Declaration of Independence was known as:
1) The Constitution
2) The Federation treaty
3) Federalist papers
4) The Articles of Confederation
Federalism chapter 3 Quiz
Question 1 The Supremacy clause can be found in:
1) The Declaration of Independence
2) The Bill of Rights
3) Article 4 of the Constitution
4) Article 6 of the Constitution
Question 2 Which of the following powers is possessed by the national government but not by the state governments?
1) The power to levy taxes
2) The power to borrow money
3) The power to establish courts
4) The power to declare war
Question 3 The powers given to states by the US Constitution can be found in:
1) Article I, Section 8
2) The Supremacy Clause
3) The 10th Amendment
4) The necessary and proper clause
Question 4 Who has concurrent powers?
1) Only the state governments
2) Only the national government
3) Only Congress
4) Both the state governments and the national government
Question 5 Under federalism, who controls the establishment of local governments?
1) Congress
2) President
3) States
4) The judiciary
Question 6 Under judicial federalism, the Supreme Court is likely to support states' rights.
1) True
2) False
Question 7 Block grants are federal monies given to the states with virtually no strings attached.
1) True
2) False
Question 8 The 10th amendment says that all powers not specifically given to the federal government shall be given to the states.
1) True
2) False
Question 9 In McCulloch v. Maryland, the Supreme Court ruled that concurrent powers authorized the states to tax creations of Congress.
1) True
2) False
Question 10 What is the significance of the Supreme Court's decision in Gibbons v. Ogden?
1) Maryland could not create a national bank
2) Congress has broad authority under the Commerce clause
3) The federal government can claim the necessary and proper clause to widen its policy making scope
4) The full faith and credit clause does not apply to states
Civil Liberties Chapter 4 Quiz
Question 1 The Constitution prohibits the federal government from:
1) Coining money
2) Chartering banks
3) Regulating commerce with foreign nations
4) Passing ex post facto laws
Question 2 The clause that ensures the judicial decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding and enforceable in another state is called ____________ clause.
1) Privileges and immunities
2) Commerce
3) Full faith and credit
4) Supremacy
Question 3 Under the full faith and credit clause, a divorce recognized in Massachusetts would:
1) Not be recognized in any other state
2) Only be recognized in the states neighboring Massachusetts
3) Carry the full force of law in any other state
4) Carry the full force of law in every state that had a similar statute
5) Need to be re-adjudicated to be recognized in another state
Question 4 Litigation over gay marriage is likely to include the following Constitutional provisions:
1) 3rd Amendment
2) 13th Amendment
3) Full faith and credit clause
4) 14th Amendment
5) 3 and 4
Question 5 What is the foundation for the incorporation doctrine?
1) The 10th amendment
2) The 14th amendment
3) The commerce clause
4) The necessary and proper clause
Question 6 What was the Supreme Court's decision in Gitlow v. New York?
1) Citizens have the right to sue the government
2) States were free to limit free expression
3) States must abide by the 1st Amendment's guarantee of freedom of speech and the press
4) Gitlow was allowed to publish his socialist manifesto
Question 7 Under which clause is the government prohibited from declaring a national religion?
1) Due process
2) Establishment
3) Supremacy
4) Commerce
Question 8 In the cases related to civil liberties, the Supreme court ruled that:
1) Flag burning was unconstitutional
2) Killing animals was unconstitutional
3) Prayer in school was constitutional
4) In one case, the use of hallucinogenic tea for religious purposes was permissible
Question 9 Which of the following type of speech can the government restrict?
1) Thoughts
2) Slander
3) Symbolic speech
4) Political speech
Question 10 The Supreme Court ruled that police does not need a search warrant to search a person being arrested.
1) True
2) False
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Additional Questions
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Additional Questions
Chapter 1:
The Political Landscape
1) The Preamble to the Constitution begins
A) "We the People . . ."
B) "Four score and seven years ago . . ."
C) "When in the course of human events . . ."
D) "In order to form a more perfect Union . . .”
E) "These are the times that try men's souls . . .”
Answer: A
2) Which of the following did NOT lead to American
settlement in the seventeenth century?
A) Questioning the divine right of kings
B) The split from the Church of England
C) Belief in self-government
D) Belief in intelligent design
E) Hobbes and Locke’s social contract theories
Answer: D
4) Locke's Second Treatise on Civil Government sets out a
theory of
A) The divine rights of kings.
B) Aristocracy.
C) Democracy.
D) Republicanism.
E) Natural rights.
Answer: E
6) Republics are
A) Representative democracies.
B) Direct democracies.
C) A hallmark of unitary governments.
D) Frequently found in totalitarian regimes.
E) Another name for states.
Answer: A
7) In an oligarchy, rule is by
A) The many.
B) The few.
C) One person.
D) All people.
E) People who own property.
Answer: B
9) Who was the major author of the Declaration of
Independence?
A) George Washington
B) James Madison
C) Thomas Jefferson
D) Benjamin Franklin
E) Alexander Hamilton
Answer: C
11) The fastest growing segment of the U.S. population is
A) Asians.
B) African Americans.
C) Muslims.
D) Caucasians.
E) Hispanics.
Answer: E
12) The coherent set or system of values and beliefs that
shape the thinking of individuals and how they view the world, as well as their
beliefs about the purpose and scope of government, is known as
A) Political theory.
B) Political ideology.
C) Sociology.
D) Political culture.
E) Political psychology.
Answer: B
14) Conservatives generally believe that
A) Government should guarantee individual rights.
B) Activist governments are often necessary.
C) Government should provide only for defense and little
else.
D) There should be less government intervention in economic
affairs.
E) Government should be abolished.
Answer: D
1) Commerce was the most common initial reason for
settlement in North America.
Answer: TRUE
2) John Locke wrote Leviathan, in which he advocated for a
strong central government.
Answer: FALSE
3) Jean-Jacques Rousseau believed a social contract would
provide absolute equality.
Answer: TRUE
4) Natural law is a doctrine that argues that society should
be governed by certain ethical principles.
Answer: TRUE
5) The key functions of American government are found in
both the Declaration of Independence and the Preamble of the U.S. Constitution.
Answer: FALSE
6) African Americans are growing at the quickest rate of all
ethnic or racial groups.
Answer: FALSE
7) The typical modern American family is easy to describe.
Answer: FALSE
8) According Isaiah Berlin, science and technology
contributed significantly to the political environment of the twentieth century.
Answer: TRUE
9) Political labels are highly correlated with party
identification.
Answer: TRUE
10) According to a 2010 poll, over half of Americans
believed that country is headed in the wrong direction.
Answer: TRUE
Chapter 2:
The Constitution
1) Eighteen to 21-year-olds received the right to vote with
ratification of the
A) Constitution. B) Bill of Rights.
C) Twenty-Sixth Amendment.
D) Nineteenth Amendment. E) Twenty-Fifth Amendment.
Answer: C
2) Great Britain used the principle of mercantilism to
justify
A) Its legal authority over the colonies. B) Its assistance
in the French and Indian Wars.
C) Strict import/export controls on the colonies.
D) Allowing colonists to levy their own taxes. E) Westward
migration and settlement.
Answer: C
4) To facilitate communication and the flow of information
among independence-minded colonists, colonial leaders formed the
A) Sisters of Liberty.
B) Committees of Correspondence.
C) Continental Congress. D) Stamp Act Congress. E) Thomas
Paine Society.
Answer: B
5) The "shot heard round the world" was fired at
A) Saratoga, New York. B) Camden, New Jersey.
C) Concord, Massachusetts.
D) Yorktown, Virginia. E) Philadelphia, Pennsylvania.
Answer: C
6) Which of the following BEST describes the relationships
among states under the Articles of Confederation?
A) A strong constitutional system B) A form of government
modeled after Canada
C) A life-long rivalry
D) A loose league of friendship
E) An interdependent, cohesive partnership
Answer: D
7) The 1786 rebellion in which an army of 1,500 disgruntled
farmers marched on Springfield, Massachusetts, to prevent foreclosure on their
farms was called
A) Shay’s Rebellion.
B) Paul Revere's Ride. C) Bacon's Rebellion.
D) The Battle of Lexington and Concord. E) The Second Boston
Tea Party.
Answer: A
8) The original purpose of the Constitutional Convention was
to
A) Elevate George Washington to president.
B) Revise the Articles of Confederation.
C) Write a new constitution. D) Add additional states to the
new nation.
E) Resolve trade disputes among the states.
Answer: B
9) A committee was appointed at the Constitutional
Convention to work out the differences between the proposals of large and small
states; the result was the
A) Virginia Plan. B) New Jersey Plan.
C) Great Compromise.
D) Electoral College. E) Bill of Rights.
Answer: C
10) The Electoral College system created by the Framers was
designed to give
A) Federal government the preeminent role in choosing the
president.
B) States a key role in choosing the president.
C) Average voters the decisive power in choosing the
president.
D) Electors the power to choose members of Congress.
E) The Supreme Court a role in choosing the president.
Answer: B
11) The system of government in which power is divided
between the state and national governments is called
A) Federalism.
B) Unitarism. C) Pluralism. D) Confederation. E) Constitutionalism.
Answer: A
12) The ________ is empowered by the Constitution to make
all federal laws.
A) Federal bureaucracy B) Judicial branch
C) Legislative branch
D) Executive branch E) Electoral College
Answer: C
13) Without the supremacy clause,
A) State laws could supersede national law.
B) States could impeach U.S. Supreme Court justices.
C) Federal government could enact laws dealing with
education.
D) International law would be supreme to acts of Congress.
E) Local law could supersede state law.
Answer: A
14) The series of 85 political papers written by John Jay,
Alexander Hamilton, and James Madison in support of ratification of the new
constitution are called the
A) Pennsylvania Packet.
B) Federalist Papers.
C) Anti-Federalist Papers. D) Crisis. E) Common Sense.
Answer: B
15) The amendment process for the Constitution is set out in
Article V and creates a
A) Two-stage process of proposal and ratification.
B) Fairly easy procedure for changing the document.
C) Single-stage process utilizing conventions or Congress.
D) Process by which the states, Congress, the executive
branch, and a majority of voters must agree on changes to the document.
E) Process of congressional approval and presidential
signing into law.
Answer: A
16) Informal methods of amending the Constitution include
A) Social change, judicial interpretation, and acts of
Congress.
B) Judicial interpretation and cultural and social change.
C) Executive orders. D) Acts of state legislatures. E) a
national referendum and/or initiative.
Answer: B
17) The First Amendment of the Constitution provides for
which of the following?
A) Freedom of assembly
B) Right to bear arms
C) Right to vote D) Right to an attorney E) Federal form of government
Answer: A
True/False Questions
1) The Committees of Correspondence were established to
communicate ideas among the colonies in 1772.
Answer: TRUE
2) Thomas Paine wrote Common Sense to argue for American
independence from Great Britain.
Answer: TRUE
3) Shays's Rebellion was the first battle of the
Revolutionary War.
Answer: FALSE
4) The 1787 Convention in Philadelphia was called for the
sole and express purpose of revising the Articles of Confederation.
Answer: TRUE
5) To appease southern states, slaves were counted as
three-fifths of a person for representation purposes.
Answer: TRUE
6) Article II of the Constitution vests the executive power
in a president.
Answer: TRUE
7) Article I of the Constitution creates the U.S. Supreme
Court.
Answer: FALSE
8) In Federalist No. 10, Madison argued that the greatest
threat to individual liberty comes from factions within the government.
Answer: TRUE
9) The U.S. Constitution has been regularly rewritten.
Answer: FALSE
10) The Constitution has only changed through formal
amendments.
Answer: FALSE
11) Originally, electors did not vote for the president and
vice president separately.
Answer: TRUE
Chapter 3:
Federalism
1) Under the Constitution, both the national and state
governments
A) Are totally autonomous. B) Do not share any powers.
C) Are accountable to the people.
D) Can regulate interstate commerce. E) Are able to
establish local governments.
Answer: C
2) A system of government where the local and regional
governments derive all authority from a strong national government is known as
a
A) Unitary system.
B) Federal system. C) Confederate system. D) Monarchy. E) Presidential
system.
Answer: A
3) The enumerated powers of the national government are
found in
A) The Declaration of Independence. B) The Preamble.
C) Article I of the Constitution.
D) Article III of the Constitution. E) Article VII of the
Constitution.
Answer: C
4) In situations of conflict between state and national law,
national law prevails due to
A) Federalism.
B) The supremacy clause.
C) The Tenth Amendment. D) Judicial interpretation. E) The
Bill of Rights.
Answer: B
5) The Tenth Amendment provides for
A) States' reserve or police powers.
B) States' implied powers.
C) Concurrent state and federal powers.
D) Enumerated federal powers. E) Taking private property for
public purposes.
Answer: A
6) A law declaring an a citizen or group of citizens guilty
without a judicial trial is called
A) An equity law. B) An
ex post facto law. C) A writ of mandamus.
D) An ex officio law.
E) A bill of attainder.
Answer: E
7) The clause of the Constitution that ensures that judicial
decrees and contracts made in one state will be binding and enforceable in
another is called the ________ clause.
A) Privileges and immunities
B) Full faith and credit
C) Equal protection D)
Supremacy E) Elastic
Answer: B
8) "The power to tax is the power to destroy"
comes from
A) Alexander Hamilton's essay in The Federalist Papers.
B) Thomas Paine's The Crisis.
C) John Marshall's opinion in McCulloch v. Maryland.
D) John Marshall's opinion in Gibbons v. Ogden.
E) James Madison's essay in The Federalist Papers.
Answer: C
9) The belief that the national government should not exceed
its enumerated powers and that all other powers should be reserved to the
states or the people is known as
A) The full faith and credit doctrine. B) The doctrine of
implied powers.
C) Confederalism.
D) Dual federalism. E) The unitary political system.
Answer: D
10) Frustrated by the U.S. Supreme Court's opposition to
many New Deal programs, President Franklin D. Roosevelt proposed
A) Impeaching the entire Supreme Court.
B) Reducing the pay of sitting Supreme Court justices.
C) Increasing the number of justices from nine to thirteen.
D) Packing Congress with his friends.
E) Reducing the number of justices from nine to seven.
Answer: C
11) Cooperative federalism has been likened to a ____ cake.
A) Layer
B) Marble
C) Red velvet D) Sheet E) pound
Answer: B
12) Categorical grants
A) Were most used during the Reagan administration.
B) Allocate federal dollars by a precise formula.
C) Have few restrictions or limitations.
D) Were commonplace during the era of New Federalism.
E) Were not used until after the 1960s.
Answer: B
13) The No Child Left Behind Act is an example of
A) A block grant.
B) Returning power to the states as specified in the
Contract with America.
C) A funded mandate.
D) Preemption. E) A categorical grant.
Answer: D
14) The Supreme Court under Chief Justice John G. Roberts,
Jr., appears to be deciding federalism cases
A) Similar to the Rehnquist Court. B) In strong favor of the
states.
C) Without a strong inclination toward either federal or
state rights.
D) In favor of the powers of the federal government. E) Following
the trends of New Federalism.
Answer: C
15) In the Price of Federalism, political scientist Paul E.
Peterson considered how governments should best divide policymaking
responsibility, focusing mainly on _______ policies.
A) Redistributive and developmental
B) Constructive and international C) State and local
D) International and regulatory E) Environmental and health
care
Answer: A
True/False Questions
1) The necessary and proper clause is the root of Congress's
implied powers.
Answer: TRUE
2) Setting the time, place, and manner of elections is a
concurrent power.
Answer: FALSE
3) Congress has attempted to make exceptions to the full
faith and credit clause.
Answer: TRUE
4) The Supreme Court ruled that the due process clause of
the Fifth Amendment did not apply to the states in Barron v. Baltimore.
Answer: TRUE
5) McCulloch v. Maryland effectively reduced the power of
the states.
Answer: TRUE
6) The Sixteenth Amendment granted states greater power over
taxation.
Answer: FALSE
7) The Supreme Court generally was supportive of President
Franklin D. Roosevelt's early attempts to deal with the Great Depression.
Answer: FALSE
8) President Lyndon B. Johnson's Great Society program
altered the fragile balance between state and federal power.
Answer: TRUE
9) Block grants are federal monies given to the states with
few strings attached.
Answer: TRUE
10) According to political scientist Paul E. Peterson,
developmental programs are best left to state governments.
Answer: TRUE
11) President George W. Bush promoted progressive
federalism.
Answer: FALSE
Chapter 5:
Civil Liberties
1) The Bill of Rights refers to _________________ of the
Constitution.
A) The Preamble B) Article IV C) The first five amendments
D) The first ten amendments
E) The first eleven amendments
Answer: D
2) The Fourteenth Amendment has been interpreted by the U.S.
Supreme Court to __________ many of the protections of the Bill of Rights by
applying them to states.
A) Negate B) Do
nothing to C) Limit
D) Incorporate
E) Equally protect
Answer: D
3) The constitutional provision preventing the use of any
"religious test" for public office
A) Is found in the First Amendment.
B) Is found in Article III.
C) Prevents members of non-Christian religions from being
elected to public office.
D) Reflects the Framers' concern that too many Roman
Catholics might be elected to public office.
E) Is found in the Sixth Amendment.
Answer: B
4) The establishment clause
A) Requires the adoption of an official American religion.
B) Erects a wall of separation between church and state.
C) Inhibits citizens' basic religious rights.
D) Provides citizens with the opportunity to obtain federal
dollars to create or build churches, temples, or other houses of worship.
E) Provides an absolute right to freedom of religious
expression.
Answer: B
5) When secular law conflicts with religious beliefs,
freedom of religion is
A) Suppressed. B) Guaranteed
by the Second Amendment.
C) Allowed, but only after a court order is obtained. D) Always
upheld.
E) Sometimes denied.
Answer: E
6) The judicial doctrine that prevents government from
prohibiting speech or publication before the fact is called
A) A priori limitation.
B) Prior restraint.
C) Selective incorporation. D) The prohibition clause. E) Libel.
Answer: B
7) In New York Times v. United States, the Supreme Court
ruled that
A) Libel and slander were constitutionally protected forms
of speech.
B) Actual malice must be proved to support a claim of libel
made by a public figure.
C) Prior restraint was constitutional.
D) False or negligent speech was not protected by the First
Amendment.
E) Newspaper reporters must divulge their confidential
sources of information.
Answer: B
8) D.C. v. Heller
A) Made all gun bans in the United States unconstitutional.
B) Was the first Supreme Court ruling on the Fifth Amendment?
C) Forced the District of Columbia to lift its gun ban.
D) Limited free speech at political rallies.
E) Protected politicians from libel law.
Answer: C
9) Ex post facto laws
A) Are unconstitutional.
B) Require judges to remove prisoners from jail.
C) Are found in the Seventh Amendment.
D) Inflict punishment on individuals without judicial
action.
E) Require authorities to prove a prisoner is being held
lawfully.
Answer: A
10) Under the ________ Amendment, the police may search
things in plain view, the person arrested, and things under the arrestee's
immediate control.
A) Third B) Fourth C) Fifth D) Sixth E) Eighth
Answer: B
11) The Supreme Court ruled that individuals who are
arrested must be informed of their constitutional rights in
A) Mapp v. Ohio.
B) Smith v. Massachusetts.
C) Weeks v. U.S.
D) McCleskey v. Zant.
E) Miranda v. Arizona.
Answer: E
12) The right to a speedy and public trial by an impartial
jury is guaranteed by the ________
Amendment.
A) Sixth
B) Seventh C) Eighth D) Tenth E) Fourteenth
Answer: A
13) The right to privacy stems from the idea that some areas
of life are off-limits to governmental regulation. This right is inferred from
I. The First Amendment.
II. The Fourth Amendment.
III. The Fifth Amendment.
IV. The Ninth Amendment.
A) III only
B) II and III
C) I, III, and IV
D) I, II, and IV
E) I, II, III, and IV
Answer: E
14) In Lawrence v. Texas, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that
A) The Boy Scouts could prevent homosexuals from becoming
troop leaders.
B) There was a homosexual agenda in the United States.
C) The equal protection clause prohibits discrimination
against gay Americans.
D) A Texas law criminalizing sexual behavior was
unconstitutional.
E) Gay marriage represented an issue best left to the
states.
Answer: D
15) Black sites are
A) Places in Afghanistan where Osama bin Laden may be
hiding.
B) In Guantanamo Bay, Cuba.
C) Holes in the universe.
D) Secret offshore prisons.
E) Unconstitutional.
Answer: D
True/False Questions
1) Civil liberties guarantee freedom from governmental
actions such as discrimination.
Answer: FALSE
2) In Gitlow v. New York, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that
states were not completely free to limit forms of political expression.
Answer: TRUE
3) At times, the Supreme Court allows the use of hallucinogenic
drugs in religious observances.
Answer: TRUE
4) The first Supreme Court case dealing with symbolic speech
was Stromberg v. California.
Answer: TRUE
5) The right to bear arms is guaranteed by the Third
Amendment.
Answer: FALSE
6) In interpreting the Fourth Amendment, the Supreme Court
has ruled that police always need a warrant to conduct a search.
Answer: FALSE
7) The Supreme Court has ruled that testimony made with the
assistance of one-way closed circuit television is permissible.
Answer: TRUE
8) In Roe v. Wade, the Supreme Court ruled that the state
had a right to regulate all aspects of second-trimester abortions, and that in
the third trimester abortions would only be legal if the life and health of the
mother were at stake.
Answer: FALSE
9) Critics charge that the USA Patriot Act expands civil
liberties needlessly in a time of war.
Answer: FALSE
10) President Barack Obama has reversed many of the civil
liberties curtailments put forth by the George W. Bush administration.
Answer: FALSE
